CSS 2022 Solved MPT MCQs | FPSC CSS Screening Test Past Paper MCQs
Here, you will have CSS 2022 Solved with Answer keys MPT MCQs. FPSC CSS Screening 2022 Test Original Paper MCQs which was conducted by FPSC today dated (20/02/2022). So, If you are a serious CSS aspirant, I would suggest you practice this CSS MPT 2022 Screening Test Original Paper MCQs without their answers. And check whether you are at the stage to get at least 50% marks in it. Give yourself an environment of the exam i.e 200min or solve it in 3hrs. The Pdf download file of these CSS Screening Test 2022 with answer keys can be found at the end of this post.
If you tested yourself and managed to get more than 100 marks out of 200 marks (50%) whereas passing criteria for MPT is a 33% score.
You are good to go for your written exam preparation without the worries of the CSS Screening test. So, take it seriously, it will be a green signal for you to heed on your compulsory subjects with ease onwards.
CSS MPT 2022 Screening Test Original Paper MCQs
Before going to the solution of css screening test 2022, it is recommended to observe these MCQs one by one. Try to solve the CSS MCQ based Preliminary test (MPT) first. However, you can find the solved MCQs of CSS Screening Test Today/MPT screening Test For CSS 2022 at the end of this article. Where you can also download in PDF the CSS MPT 2022 Screening Test Original Paper MCQs with solution answer keys.
Special CSS MPT 2023 Solved MCQs of Past Paper
CSS 2022 MCQ Based Preliminary Test (MPT) Solved Paper with Answer keys
1. Which of the following is the longest Surah of the Holy Qur’an?
A. Surah Yaseen
B. Surah Rehman
C. Surah Al-Baqara
D. None of these
2. Which term is used for the longest Ayah (Verse) of the Holy Qur’an?
A. Ayat-e-Mubahala
B. Ayat-e-Mudayana
C. Ayat-e-Madina
D. None of these
3. What is the title of Tafseer (Commentary) written by Mufti Muhammad Shafi?
A. Ma’arif-ul-Quran
B. Tafheem-ul-Quran
C. Fahm-ul-Quran
D. None of these
4. What are Hanafi, Maliki, Shaf’I and Hanbali?
A. Creed based doctrines
B. Fiqhi doctrines
C. Kalami doctrines
D. None of these
5. The Nisab of Zakat in Gold is:
A. 71/2 tola
B. 521/2 tola
C. 7 tola
D. None of these
6. To which country did Prophet Muhammad (SAW) have his first business trip?
A. Taif
B. Ethiopia
C. Syria
D. None of these
7. What was the real name of Imam Abu Hanifa?
A. Sabit bin Nauman
B. Muhammad bin Nauman
C. Nauman bin Sabit
D. None of these
8. What type of Prayer is Namaz-e-Janaza?
A. Sunnah
B. Farz-e-Mukkad
C. Farz-e-Kifaya
D. None of these
9. What is the distance required for ‘Qasr’ in Prayer?
A. 58 km
B. 85 km
C. 78 km
D. None of these
10. How many clauses did the treaty of Hudaybiyyah contain?
A. 7
B. 5
C. 3
D. None of these
11. What is the literal meaning of ‘Ijma’?
A. Struggle
B. Consensus
C. To guess
D. None of these
12. What is meant by ‘Sila-e-Rahmi’?
A. Boycott
B. Ties of Kinship
C. Generosity
D. None of these
13. What is the alternative name of ‘Ghazwa-e-Khandaq’?
A. Ghazwa-e-Ahzab
B. Ghazwa-e-Hunain
C. Ghazwa-e-Khyber
D. None of these
14. In how many Ghazwas did the Prophet Muhammad (S.A.W) participate?
A. 27
B. 17
C. 37
D. None of these
15. The first-ever international treaty in Islamic history is known as:
A. Hilf-ul-Fuzool
B. Baia’t-e-Rizwan
C. Treaty of Madina
D. None of these
16. What is the name of the Islamic Constitutional Organization of the government of Pakistan?
A. Pakistan Sharia Council
B. Islamic Ideology Council
C. Islamic Economic Council
D. None of these
17. What is ‘Rabbi Zidni Ilma’?
A. Hadith
B. Asar
C. Qur’anic verse
D. None of these
18. The wealth/property left by the deceased is called?
A. Taraka
B. Sadaqa
C. Asaba
D. None of these
19. For how long did the Prophet Muhammad (S.A.W) and his companion remain in the siege in Shi’ab-e-Abi-Talib?
A. One year
B. Two years
C. Three years
D. None of these
20. Who was the first caliph in the Umayyad dynasty?
A. Hazrat Muawiyah (RA)
B. Hazrat Usman (RA)
C. Hazrat Umar bin Abdul Aziz (RA)
D. None of these
21۔ بنوامیہ کے پہلے خلیفہ کا نام کیا تھا؟
(A) حضرت امیر معاویہ
(B)حضرت عثمان
(C) حضرت عمر بن عبدالعزیر
(D) ان میں سے کوئی نہیں
22۔ وہ الفاظ جو اسم کی جگہ استعمال کیے جاتے ہیں، کیا کہلاتے ہیں ؟
(A)حرف ِجار
(B)فعل
(C)اسم خاص
(D)ضمیر
23۔ “کھاٹ سے کھٹولا “اسم نکرہ کی کون سی قسم کو ظاہر کرتا ہے؟
(A)اسم مکبر
(B)اسم مصغر
(C)اسم آلہٰ
(D)اسم صوت
23۔ اس لفظ کو کیا کہتے ہیں جو کسی دوسرے لفظ سے نکلاہو ؟
(A)جامد
(B)مصدر
(C)مشتق
(D)حاصل مصدر
24۔ املا کے اعتبار سے کون سالفظ درست ہے؟
(A)عبدلرحمان
(B)عبدرحمان
(C)عبدلرّحمان
(D)عبدالرّحمان
25۔ درج ذیل الفاظ میں سے کون سالفظ مذکرہے؟
(A)آب ودانہ
(B)بندرگاہ
(C)مٹھاس
(D)ڈھلان
26۔ درج ذیل الفاظ میں سے کون سالفظ مؤنث ہے؟
(A)سنسکرت
(B)بھاؤ
(C)بچپن
(D)معاملہ
27۔ دہم کی جمع کیا ہے؟
(A)ادہام
(B)واہمہ
(C)توہم
(D)واہمات
28۔ “خرد “کا متضاد کیا ہے؟
(A)عقل
(B)دیوانگی
(C)جنوں
(D)فہم
29۔ ” چھپھم” کس لفظ کا متضاد ہے؟
(A)پورب
(B)یورپ
(C)مشرق
(D)مغرب
30۔ مشاہر ہ کا ہم معنی لفظ تلاش کیجیے۔
(A) مشہور
(B) تنخواہ
(C)مشاورت
(D)قیمت
31۔ کون سا جملہ درست ہے؟
(A)لڑکیاں گا رہیں ہیں۔
(B) لڑکیاں گا رہیں ہے۔
(C) لڑکیاں گا رہی ہیں۔
(D)ان میں سے کوئی نہیں
32۔ درست جملے پر نشان لگائیے۔
(A)گھوڑا گاڑی بک گئیں۔
(B)گھوڑا گاڑی بک گئی۔
(C)گھوڑا گاڑی بک گئے۔
(D)گھوڑا گاڑی بک گیا۔
33۔ ہجر کا مترادف لفظ تلاش کیجیے۔
(A)وصل
(B)وصال
(C)فراق
(D)ملاقات
34۔ Acting president کو اُردو میں کیا کہتے ہیں؟
(A)عارضی صدر
(B)اداکار صدر
(C)وقتی صدر
(D)قائم مقام صدر
35۔ لفظeconomy کا درست اُردو متبادل کیا ہے ؟
(A)معاش
(B)معیشت
(C)بچت
(D)اقتصادی
36۔ Office Memorandum کو دفتری اُردو میں کیا کہیں گے؟
(A)دفتری یادداشت
(B)یاددہانی کا خط
(C)نیم سرکاری خط
(D)غیر سرکاری خط
37۔ Minutes of the meeting کواُر دو میں کیا کہتے ہیں؟
(A)رودادِاجلاس
(B)جلسے کے اوقات
(C)پیش نامہ
(D)اطلاع نامہ
38۔ Noting کو دفتری اُردو میں کیا کہتے ہیں؟
(A)کیفیت نویسی
(B)رودادِنویسی
(C)تبصرہ نویسی
(D)ان میں سے کوئی نہیں
39۔” براے تعمیل” درج ذیل میں سے کس کا درست ترجمہ ہے ؟
(A) For Compliance
(B) For Issue
(C) For Pursuance
(D) For necessary action
40۔ قائل کو اُردو میں کیا کہتے ہیں ؟
(A)مصل
(B)مثل
(C)مسل
(D)ان میں سے کوئی نہیں
[URDU MCQs 21-40 can also be Studied from the Images] Image 1 & Image 2
41. The settlers found an ideal location with plenty of ___ land for forming and a mountain stream for fresh water and irrigation.
A. Candid
B. Quaint
C. Arable
D. Saline
42. What is most needed in a discussion of immigration are solid facts, not wishful thinking; realities, not?
A. Fears
B. Ideas
C. Myths
D. Veracities
43. The defendant claimed that he was innocent and that his confession was:
A. Flagrant
B. Coerced
C. Terse
D. Benign
44. The rebel spies were charged with ___ and put on trial.
A. Attrition
B. Reiteration
C. Sedition
D. Perdition
45. Zachary was doomed to a miserable life, for no matter how much he had, he always ___ the possessions of others.
A. Protracted
B. Exalted
C. Coveted
D. Filibustered
Read the following passage and choose the best suitable option for the question/statements.
Glaciers consist of fallen snow that compresses over many years into large, thickened ice masses. Most of the world’s glacial ice is found in Antarctica and Greenland, but glaciers are found on nearly every continent, Even Africa. Presently, 10% of the land area is covered with glaciers. Glacial ice often appears blue because the ice absorbs all other colors but reflects blue. Almost 90% of an iceberg is below water, only about 10% shows above water. What makes glaciers unique is their ability to move. Due to sheer mass. Glaciers flow like very slow rivers. Some glaciers are as small as football fields, whereas others grow to be over 100 kilometers long.
Within the past 750,000 years, scientists know that there have been eight Ice Age cycles, separated by warmer periods called an interglacial period. Currently, the earth is nearing the end of an interglacial, meaning that another Ice Age is due in a few thousand years. This is part of the normal climate variation cycle. Greenhouse warming may delay the onset of another glacial era, but scientists still have many questions to answer about Climate change. Although glaciers change very slowly over long periods, they may provide important global climate change signals.
The girth of ice, combined with gravity’s influences, causes glaciers to flow very slowly, once a mass of compressed ice reaches a critical thickness of about 18 meters thick, it becomes so heavy that it begins to deform and move. Ice may flow down mountains and valleys, fan across plains, or spread out to sea. Movement along the underside of a glacier is slower than movement at the top due to the friction created as it slides along the ground’s surface.
Most glaciers are found in remote mountainous areas. However, some found near cities or towns present a danger to the people living nearby. On land, lakes formed on top of a glacier during the melt season may cause floods. At the narrow part of a valley glacier, ice falling from the glacier presents a hazard to hikers below. When the ice breaks off over the ocean, an iceberg is formed.
Glaciers are a natural resource and contain 75% of the world’s freshwater. People worldwide are trying to harness the power of these frozen streams. Some towns rely on glacial melting from a nearby ice cap to provide drinking water. Some farmers spread soil or ashes over the snow to promote melting, hoping that the melting will provide water to irrigate crops in drought-stricken areas. Others have channeled meltwater from glaciers to their fields. Scientists and engineers have worked together to tap into glacial resources, using electricity that has been generated in part by damming glacial meltwater.
46. According to paragraph 4, what is a negative effect of living too close to a glacier?
A. The mass of the glacier reaches a critical thickness.
B. About 10% of a glacier shows above water.
C. Spreading dark material over snow promoted melting.
D. Lakes formed on top of glaciers may cause floods.
47. The underlines word remote, as used in paragraph 4 of the passage, most nearly means:
A. Isolated
B. Nearby
C. Slow Traveling
D. Difficult to see
48. The passage explains that glaciers can be found where?
A. Only on Antarctica
B. Only Greenland and Alaska
C. On nearly every continent
D. On the north and south poles
49. According to the passage, why does glacial ice often appear blue?
A. Because it does not absorb the color blue
B. Because it absorbs all other colors but reflects blue
C. Because it does not absorb all other colors including blue
D. Because it is blue in color
50. After reading the passage, what can one conclude about glaciers?
A. There will not be another Ice Age coming
B. Glacier have both negative and positive effect on human life
C. Scientists have difficulty studying glaciers
D. Scientists have minimal data on the formation of glaciers
51. After reading the passage, what can one infer about glaciers?
A. Further exploration is needed to tap the power of glacial ice in fuelling electric energy
B. With variations in climate, glaciers shrink and expand
C. Glaciers form in cold regions where the rate of snowfall is greater that the melting rate of snow
D. Glaciers are usually bordered at the sides by rock debris
Choose an option that is correct according to the standard use of English.
52.
A. A noise woke me up in the middle of the night
B. Noise woke me up in the middle of the night
C. A noise woke me up at the middle of the night
D. A noise woke me up on the middle of the night
53.
A. A cup of tea is hanging on the hook in the kitchen
B. A tea cup is hanging over the hook in the kitchen
C. A teacup is hanging on the hook in the kitchen
D. A tea’s cup is hanging on the hook in the kitchen
54.
A. Our friend has an apartment toward East London
B. Our friends has an apartment on East London
C. Our friend has an apartment in the East London
D. Our friend has an apartment in East London
55.
A. The doctor told him to give up smoking
B. The doctor told him giving up smoking
C. The doctor told him to give up smoke
D. The doctor told him to give away smoking
56.
A. We look forward to going Lahore in evening
B. We look forward to going Lahore in the evening
C. We look forward to go Lahore on the evening
D. We look forward to go Lahore in the evening
57.
A. He gave me all the maps free
B. He gave me all the maps freely
C. He gave me all the maps to free
D. He gave me all the maps in free
58.
A. In France the death penalty was abolished in 1981
B. In France the death penalty has been abolished in 1981
C. In France the death penalty has been abolished on 1981
D. In France the death penalty was abolished on 1981
59.
A. On page 3, there is an advertisement of a new video camera
B. On page 3, there is an advertisement about a new video camera
C. On page 3, there is an advertisement for a new video camera
D. On page 3, there is an advertisement of new video camera
60.
A. We do not afford to eat in restaurants nowadays
B. We cannot afford to eat in restaurants nowadays
C. We do not afford eat-in restaurants nowadays
D. We do not afford to eating in restaurants nowadays
61.
A. The Japanese couple on the back of the coach was obviously newly-weds
B. The Japanese couples at the back of the coach were obviously newly-weds
C. The Japanese couples at the back of the coach was obviously newly-weds
D. The Japanese couple in the back f the coach was obviously newly-weds
62.
A. A cat can see in the darkness
B. The cat can see in the darkness
C. Cats can see in the darkness
D. A cat can see into the darkness
63.
A. This is the only one of his poems that is worth reading
B. This is the only one of his poems that are worth reading
C. This is the only one of his poem that are worth reading
D. This is the only one of his poems that is worth read
64.
A. Trees help to create a peaceful surrounding
B. Trees help to create a peaceful surroundings
C. Trees help to create peaceful surroundings
D. Trees help to create a peaceful surrounding
65. Choose the sentence with an adverb.
A. Don’t talk so loud
B. He lives in the next house
C. He is quick to take offense
D. The night is dark
66. Choose the sentence with the proper Adjective.
A. French wines are not available here
B. He showed much patience
C. He has lost all his wealth
D. I ate some rice
67. Choose the sentence with the Adverb of time.
A. I have spoken to him already
B. He seldom comes here
C. The horse galloped away
D. The boy works hard
68. In the sentence “Ambition urges me forward”, forward is:
A. An Adverb of place
B. An Adjective place
C. An Adverb of time
D. An Adjective of time
69. In the sentence “Children love making mud castles”, making is:
A. Verb
B. Main Verb
C. Gerund
D. Both a & b
70. The sentence ‘The earth is larger than the moon’, than is:
A. Subordinating Conjunction
B. Coordinating Conjunction
C. Not a conjunction
D. Both a & B
71. In the sentence “Such was not my intention”, such is:
A. Pronoun
B. Adjective
C. Conjunction
D. All of these
Fill in the blanks with the correct option.
72. Ambition does not always conduce ____ultimate happiness.
A. Of
B. In
C. To
D. From
73. The holidays will begin ___ June 29.
A. On
B. From
C. In
D. With
74. Send this letter ___ my address.
A. To
B. On
C. At
D. Towards
75. He accepted the car in lieu ___ his claim ___ Rs. 4, 55,000.
A. Of, Of
B. With, for
C. Of, For
D. With, of
In each of the following questions, a pair of words or phrases is separated by a colon (:) follows four related pairs of words or phrases. Select the lettered pair that best expresses the relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair.
76. CONVICTION: INCARCERATION
A. Reduction: diminution
B. Induction: intimidation
C. Radicalization: estimation
D. Marginalization: intimidation
77. FROND: PALM
A. Quill: porcupine
B. Blade: evergreen
C. Scale: wallaby
D. Tusk: alligator
78. SPY: CLANDESTINE
A. Accountant: meticulous
B. Furrier: rambunctious
C. Lawyer: Ironic
D. Shepherd: garrulous
79. FERAL: TAME
A. Rancid: rational
B. Nettlesome: annoying
C. Repentant: honorable
D. Ephemeral: immortal
80. DOLLAR: DIME
A. Saleswoman: Pitch
B. Retreat: Victory
C. Century: Decade
D. Ring: Necklace
Choose the option that is closest in meaning to the word provided.
81. SUMPTUOUS
A. Delirious
B. Gorgeous
C. Perilous
D. Luxurious
82. SACROSANCT
A. Prayer
B. Sanctuary
C. Pious
D. Sacred
83. CHURLISH
A. Childish
B. Boorish
C. Tempestuous
D. Disorderly
84. WINDOW
A. Carve
B. Wind
C. Weed
D. Carry
85. MORDANT
A. Dead
B. Gruesome
C. Fetid
D. Caustic
Choose the option that is most nearly opposite of word provided.
86. SARTORIAL
A. Cheerful
B. Sincere
C. Inelegant
D. Homespun
87. SAPIENT
A. Hunched
B. Strong
C. Simple
D. Simian
88. MATUTINAL
A. Paternal
B. Crepuscular
C. Maritime
D. Marsupial
89. GUMPTION
A. Seriousness
B. Apathy
C. Levity
D. Despair
90. OBTUSE
A. Slim
B. Acute
C. Opaque
D. Thick
91. Find the percentage of 0.001:
A. 1
B. 0.1
C. 0.01
D. None of these
92. Find the answer of the series (-3) x (-3) x (-3):
A. -3
B. 27
C. -27
D. None of these
93. What is the square root of -25:
A. 5
B. -5
C. -2.5
D. None of these
94. Let x = -4x + 4, the value of x will be:
A. 4/5
B. 5/4
C. -4/3
D. None of these
95. If the sum of all 10 values in the data set are 10, then what will be the average:
A. 1
B. 5
C. 10
D. None of these
96. Let (x1/2) x(x-1/2), then find the correct answer:
A. 0
B. 1
C. -1/4
D. None of these
97. Let (-2x)3, then find the correct answer:
A. 8x
B. -8x
C. -8x3
D. None of these
98. Let (x/2)-(x/4) = 2 then find the correct answer:
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. None of these
99. Let x2/3 = 64, then find the value of x:
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. None of these
100. The angle made by two lines is called?
A. Segment
B. Vertex
C. Rays
D. None of these
101. A polygon that consists of 8 sides is called?
A. Nonagon
B. Decagon
C. Octagon
D. None of these
102. A measure of angle which is the complement of itself is called?
A. 30°
B. 45°
C. 90°
D. None of these
103. A triangle has ___ vertices.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. None of these
104. The sum of three angles of an isosceles triangle is:
A. 90°
B. 180°
C. 360°
D. None of these
105. How many endpoints are in a line?
A. No endpoints
B. One endpoint
C. Two endpoints
D. None of these
Notice: A line segment has two endpoints. However, a line has no end point.
106. Which of the following is the longest chord of a circle?
A. Radius
B. Diameter
C. Circumference
D. None of these
107. How many sides does a Pentagon have?
A. Five
B. Seven
C. Eight
D. None of these
108. A Figure whose all four sides are equal is called?
A. Rectangle
B. Square
C. Circle
D. None of these
109. Sometimes we give a statement in favour of another statement, which is called?
A. Argument
B. Premises
C. Conclusion
D. None of these
110. Knowledge of children based on memory process is called?
A. Learning
B. Strategy
C. Metamemory
D. None of these
111. in which memory, all materials are stored so that we can retrieve them later on:
A. Short term memory
B. Long term memory
C. Sensory memory
D. None of these
112. Who introduced the term “Intelligence Quotient” (I.Q)?
A. William Stern
B. A.R Jensen
C. R.B Cattell
D. None of these
113. Sometimes we think about the beauty of Heaven, what we call it:
A. Imagination
B. Concept Formation
C. Fantasy
D. None of these
114. What is the last stage of creative thinking?
A. Preparation
B. Verification
C. Evaluation
D. None of these
115. Short-term memory lasts only:
A. 5-10 seconds
B. 10-15 seconds
C. 20-30 seconds
D. None of these
116. Give a name of the range which an individual can make between the weakest and the loudest sounds:
A. Sensory range
B. Pitch range
C. Dynamic range
D. None of these
117. Decibel (dB) is the unit that can be used to measure the:
A. Sensation
B. Intensity of Sound Pressure
C. Vision
D. None of these
118. Let a Mental Age (MA) and Chronological Age (CA) are given then “Intelligence Quotient” (I.Q) is:
A. MA-CA
B. MA/CA
C. CA/MA
D. None of these
119. (i) The bulb X lasts longer than bulb Y. (ii) The bulb F does not last longer than bulb Z. (iii) The bulb Z lasts longer than bulb x. if the statements (i) and (ii) are true, then the statement (iii) is:
A. True
B. False
C. Uncertain
D. None of these
120. (i) Passing CSS examination gives happiness, (ii) Happiness produces a smile. (iii) Passing CSS examination gives smile. If the statement (i) and (ii) are true, then the statement (iii) is:
A. True
B. False
C. Uncertain
D. None of these
121. (i) A toothpaste is useful. (ii) Useful things are valuable. (iii) toothpaste is valuable. If the statements (i) and (ii) are true, then the statement (iii) is:
A. True
B. False
C. Uncertain
D. None of these
122. To pack 100 pairs of shoes into cases that each holds 20 shoes, then how many cases do we need?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. None of these
123. The total number of cubic blocks is 50. To construct a solid cube with none left over, what will be the minimum numbers that need to be taken?
A. 21
B. 22
C. 23
D. None of these
124. In the following series 12, 11, 13, 12, 14, 13…..what number should come next?
A. 13
B. 14
C. 15
D. None of these
125. In the following series 2, 1, (1/2), (1/4) … what number should come next?
A. 1/3
B. 1/8
C. 1/16
D. None of these
126. Which of the following option does not belong to a “book”?
A. Glossary
B. Project
C. Chapter
D. None of these
127. Which of the following option does not belong to a “bird”?
A. Wing
B. Rudder
C. Beak
D. None of these
128. Which of the following option is a necessary part of “harvest”?
A. Crop
B. Tractor
C. Stockpile
D. None of these
129. Give the name of the USB part which exists in all modern computers?
A. Universal Service Broadcasting
B. Universal Serial Bus
C. Uniform Service Broadcasting
D. None of these
130. “Dear Money” is used for?
A. Low rate of Interest
B. High rate of Interest
C. Value of money
D. None of these
131. Give the name of the term “SPM” which is often used in the study of pollution?
A. Solid Particulate Matter
B. Sulfur Particulate Matter
C. Suspended Particulate Matter
D. None of these
132. Which of the following option is a necessary part of “School”?
A. Learning
B. Student
C. Report Card
D. None of these
133. My wife and I have two sons. Each son has one sister. How many members are in the family?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. None of these
134. A farmer has 10 cows. All cows died except four. How many cows are left?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. None of these
135. What does “SAT” stand for?
A. Scholar Assessment Test
B. Scholastic Assessment Test
C. Scholarship Assessment Test
D. None of these
136. “SAT” is useful to judge the:
A. Predicting Future
B. Fairness and objectiveness
C. Genius and Gifted
D. None of these
137. Pictogram is appropriate for data:
A. Fraction
B. Count
C. Interval
D. None of these
138. Pie-Chart suitable to divide the components of factor in:
A. Sectors
B. Percentage
C. Angles
D. None of these
139. If we add a constant 3 to each observation of a data set then find the mean:
A. Increased by 3
B. Decreased by 3
C. No Effect
D. None of these
140. If three observations are 5, 5, and 5 then the arithmetic mean is:
A. 5
B. 10
C. 0
D. None of these
141. If the minimum value in a set is 5 and its range is 50m then the maximum value of a set is:
A. 47
B. 55
C. 50
D. None of these
142. The probability can take values:
A. -1 to +1
B. -∞ to +∞
C. 0 to 1
D. None of these
143. The mean of 5 observations is 10. A new observation 10 is added, then mean of 6 observations is:
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. None of these
144. Mean is a measure of:
A. Location
B. Dispersion
C. Variation
D. None of these
145. Which of the following plays a major role in reaction to stress?
A. Confidence
B. Emotions
C. Personality
D. None of these
146. In which of the following options we feel stress if we fail in CSS examination?
A. Physical
B. Mental
C. Social Sigma
D. None of these
147. Which of the following technique is useful to handle sensitive issues?
A. Random Response
B. Randomized Response
C. Physical Response
D. None of these
148. To clean the ice from the roads during the winter season, which of the following is used?
A. Chlorine
B. Slat
C. Iodine
D. None of these
149. Which of the planet moves slowest around the Sun?
A. Venus
B. Mercury
C. Jupiter
D. None of these
150. The life span of red blood cells in human is:
A. 120 days
B. 125 days
C. 130 days
D. None of these
151. How many fluids per day a man should use?
A. 2.7 liters
B. 3.7 liters
C. 4.7 liters
D. None of these
152. Vitamin A creates _____ deficiency in the human body.
A. Hair fall
B. Rickets
C. Night blindness
D. None of these
153. The waves which are used by the TV remote control are:
A. Infrared waves
B. Radio waves
C. TV waves
D. None of these
154. Which of the following gas is used in the Refrigerator for cooling?
A. Methane
B. Ammonia
C. Nitrogen
D. None of these
155. Which of the planet moves fastest around the Sun?
A. Venus
B. Mercury
C. Jupiter
D. None of these
156. Which instrument is used to measure the oxygen level of the blood?
A. Thermometer
B. Oximeter
C. Spirometer
D. None of these
157. Which type of vitamin is useful for the human body through Sun?
A. Vitamin B12
B. Vitamin A
C. Vitamin D
D. None of these
158. In which of the following country the Equator passes?
A. Pakistan
B. Malaysia
C. Kenya
D. None of these
159. Which of the following lens are useful in the microscope?
A. Convex lens
B. Concave lens
C. Curved lens
D. None of these
160. The instrument used to measure the rainfall is:
A. Barometer
B. Hydrometer
C. Nanometer
D. None of these
161. Which blood group is rare in the human body?
A. O
B. AB+
C. AB-
D. None of these
162. Which light is more important for photosynthesis?
A. Violet light
B. Red light
C. Greenlight
D. None of these
163. The instrument which is used to measure the blood pressure is called:
A. Spirometer
B. Barometer
C. Sphygmomanometer
D. None of these
164. The world is divided into how many time zones?
A. 12
B. 18
C. 24
D. None of these
165. Which of the following is the warmest ocean?
A. Indian Ocean
B. Pacific Ocean
C. Atlantic Ocean
D. None of these
166. Vitamin B exists in:
A. Fruit and Vegetables
B. Seeds
C. Sea-food
D. None of these
167. How many countries are declared nuclear powers?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. None of these
168. FATF stands for:
A. Financial Action Task Force
B. Federal Agency Task Force
C. Financial Authority Task Force
D. None of these
169. Washington DC is the _____ State of USA.
A. 48th
B. 49th
C. 50th
D. None of these
170. Which is the smallest country in the world?
A. Vatican City
B. Maldives
C. Monaco
D. None of these
171. Who is the founder of Wikipedia?
A. Julian Assange
B. Jimmy Wales
C. Bill Gates
D. None of these
172. ______ is known as the land of the rising sun.
A. Japan
B. Norway
C. Kenya
D. None of these
173. ______ will be the next leap year.
A. 2022
B. 2023
C. 2024
D. None of these
174. COP26 was held in which country?
A. UK
B. USA
C. France
D. None of these
175. The present speaker of Pakistan’s National assembly is:
A. Asad Qaisar
B. Asad Umar
C. Qasim Suri
D. None of these
176. As per IMF sources, Pakistan’s GDP would be ____ in the year 2022.
A. 3.96
B. 3.94
C. 3.92
D. None of these
177. The Upper house of the British Parliament is:
A. Senate
B. House of Lords
C. House of Commons
D. None of these
178. SAARC stands for:
A. South Asian Association for Regional Corporation
B. South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation
C. South Asian Association for Regional Council
D. None of these
179. OIC stands for:
A. Organization of Islamic Conference
B. Organization of Islamic Countries
C. Organization of Islamic Cooperation
D. None of these
180. Hamas is an Islamic organization working for the:
A. Liberation of Palestine
B. Liberation of Chechnya
C. Liberation of Kashmir
D. None of these
181. The Summit for Democracy was held in _____ in December 2021.
A. New York
B. London
C. Washington
D. None of these
182. The author of Governing the Ungovernable is:
A. Shuja Nawaz
B. Ishrat Hussain
C. Hassan Askari
D. None of these
183. FATA merged with KPK under ____ amendment to the Constitution of Pakistan.
A. 24th
B. 25th
C. 26th
D. None of these
184. ______ is the only female Governor appointed in Pakistan.
A. Begum Rana Liaqat Ali Khan
B. Mohtarma Fatima Jinnah
C. Begum Jahan Ara Shahnawaz
D. None of these
185. National Identity card was introduced in Pakistan in:
A. 1973
B. 1974
C. 1976
D. None of these
186. Which rivers were given to India under Indus Water Treaty in 1960?
A. Jhelum, Sutlej, Ravi
B. Chenab, Beas, Ravi
C. Sutlej, Beas, Ravi
D. None of these
187. Mohtarma Benazir Bhutto became first time PM of Pakistan in:
A. October 1988
B. November 1988
C. December 1988
D. None of these
188. During the Ayub era, presidential elections were held in:
A. 1962
B. 1965
C. 1966
D. None of these
189. The head of the state in Pakistan is:
A. Prime Minister
B. President
C. Speaker NA
D. None of these
190. Lahore Resolution was passed in:
A. 1943
B. 1946
C. 1940
D. None of these
191. Who was the 2nd Prime Minister of Pakistan?
A. Ch. Muhammad Ali
B. Muhammad Ali Bogra
C. Khawaja Nazimuddin
D. None of these
192. Who became president after Ayub khan resigned?
A. Zulfiqar Ali Bhutto
B. Noorul Ameen
C. Muhammad Khan Junejo
D. None of these
193. Pakistan has ____ federating units.
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. None of these
194. Pakistan became a member of the UN in:
A. 1947
B. 1948
C. 1949
D. None of these
195. Pakistan is situated in:
A. Southeast Asia
B. East Asia
C. South Asia
D. None of these
196. Pakistan has borders with _____ and _____.
A. Saudi Arabia, Iraq
B. China, Iran
C. Both A and B
D. None of these
197. The Single National Curriculum in Pakistan was implemented at the primary level in:
A. 2019
B. 2020
C. 2021
D. None of these
198. The Present Federal Minister of State for Climate Change in Pakistan?
A. Zartaj Gul
B. Amin Aslam
C. Zulfiqar Bukhari
D. None of these
199. The T-Twenty 2021 World Cup Champion is:
A. Pakistan
B. New Zealand
C. Australia
D. None of these
200. National Anthem of Pakistan was officially adopted in:
A. 1952
B. 1954
C. 1956
D. None of these
CSS Screening Test 2022 Orginal Papers
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- I. Candidates are informed that Answer Sheet comprises Two
Sheets (Pink & Blue). On the conclusion of the examination Pink sheet is to be handed over to the
invigilating staff. Candidates are allowed to retain Blue sheet for checking their scores.
Answer Key will be uploaded on FPSC website on the eve of the examination. - II. Candidates are advised to;
- (i) read MCQs from Questions Booklet and Fill in the appropriate box in the
Answer Sheet. - (ii) understand that, all MCQs have equal marks and there is no Negative Marking.
- (iii) avoid writing Roll Number, Name, answers to the questions or any other remark(s) on or
inside Questions Booklet. - (iv) handover Questions Booklet and Pink Answer Sheet to the duty invigilator on
conclusion of examination. - (v) take/retain Blue Answer Sheet on conclusion of examination.
- (vi) visit the FPSC website for Answer Key which will be made available on the eve of examination.
- (vii) avoid cutting / correction in the Answer Sheet. If candidate marks more than one
option it will be considered as a wrong answer. - (viii) Do not use lead pencil in the Answer Sheet. Use of ballpoint pen is advised. Avoid markers.
Note: Use of Calculator and electronic equipments such as Laptop, Mobile Phone / Cell phone,
Smart Watch, Bluetooth Devices, programmable devices and storage media like Pen drive
etc., during exam are STRICTLY PROHIBITED. Any infringement may lead to initiation of legal proceedings.
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